Discussion about this post

User's avatar
Losthighway's avatar

Let me just check I was understanding your point. I was thinking that you were giving something like the following argument

(a) (arbitrage constraints tell us that) we can think of selling a covered call as selling the replication of the underlying

(b) normally if X can make more money M than Y from the use of R then it can make sense for Y to sell R to X for some sum less than M. For example if I am really bad at collecting overdue sums owed to me but you are good at collecting ones owed to you it can make sense for me to sell my outstanding overdue receivables to you at a discount. That helps us both, and is accretive to what I would have brought in if I hadn’t sold.

(c) market makers can make more money than I can via being able to buy and sell the underlying so as to replicate the option

Therefore

(d) Unless trading costs are too high to make it worthwhile, we should expect that there is a price between the value of the option to me and the value to the market makers such that if I sell it to them we can both do better than if there was no sale. Efficient market forces should lead us to expect that that kind of price should be offered.

So far so good for theory, but we don’t observe that. Question is, why?”

Does that roughly capture the way you were thinking about it, or did I misunderstand something?

Expand full comment
Losthighway's avatar

Really interesting way to think about it via market maker advantage on replication. Could their discussion of the comparatively short numbers of DTE for hedged options, and how much of the return was driven by residual/unexplained P&L as compared with realized+vega have something to do with that? Like, the market makers demanding a huge premium to take on the risks related to that return profile over a short term (average) run in to expiry? Thinking about the stuff from like 1:07 in the video

Expand full comment
3 more comments...

No posts